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Question: 1
– [Configure and Use Code Scanning]
After investigating a code scanning alert related to injection, you determine that the input is properly sanitized using custom logic. What should be your next step?

A. Draft a pull request to update the open-source query.
B. Ignore the alert.
C. Open an issue in the CodeQL repository.
D. Dismiss the alert with the reason “false positive.”

Answer: D
Explanation:
When you identify that a code scanning alert is a false positive—such as when your code uses a custom sanitization method not recognized by the analysis—you should dismiss the alert with the reason “false positive.” This action helps improve the accuracy of future analyses and maintains the relevance of your security alerts. As per GitHub’s documentation:
“If you dismiss a CodeQL alert as a false positive result, for example because the code uses a sanitization library that isn’t supported, consider contributing to the CodeQL repository and improving the analysis.”
By dismissing the alert appropriately, you ensure that your codebase’s security alerts remain actionable and relevant.

Question: 2
– [Configure and Use Dependency Management]
When does Dependabot alert you of a vulnerability in your software development process?

A. When a pull request adding a vulnerable dependency is opened
B. As soon as a vulnerable dependency is detected
C. As soon as a pull request is opened by a contributor
D. When Dependabot opens a pull request to update a vulnerable dependency

Answer: B
Explanation:
Dependabot alerts are generated as soon as GitHub detects a known vulnerability in one of your dependencies. GitHub does this by analyzing your repository’s dependency graph and matching it against vulnerabilities listed in the GitHub Advisory Database. Once a match is found, the system raises an alert automatically without waiting for a PR or manual action.
This allows organizations to proactively mitigate vulnerabilities as early as possible, based on real- time detection.
Reference: GitHub Docs – About Dependabot alerts; Managing alerts in GitHub Dependabot

Question: 3
– [Configure and Use Dependency Management]
Which of the following is the most complete method for Dependabot to find vulnerabilities in third- party dependencies?

A. Dependabot reviews manifest files in the repository
B. CodeQL analyzes the code and raises vulnerabilities in third-party dependencies
C. A dependency graph is created, and Dependabot compares the graph to the GitHub Advisory database
D. The build tool finds the vulnerable dependencies and calls the Dependabot API

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Question: 1
An administrator would like to use FortiCNP to keep track of sensitive data files located in the Amazon Web Services (AWS) S3 bucket and protect it from malware.
Which FortiCNP feature should the administrator use?

A. FortiCNP Threat Detection policies
B. FortiCNP Risk Management policies
C. FortiCNP Data Scan policies
D. FortiCNP Compliance policies

Answer: C

Question: 2
You are using Ansible to modify the configuration of several FortiGate VMs.
What is the minimum number of files you need to create, and in which file should you configure the target FortiGate IP addresses?

A. One playbook file for each target and the required tasks, and one inventory file.
B. One .yaml file with the target IP addresses, and one playbook file with the tasks.
C. One inventory file for each target device, and one playbook file.
D. One text file for all target devices, and one playbook file.

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QUESTION 1
Why is it necessary to update firmware to the latest version?

A. To support the latest operating systems and applications
B. To patch firmware in the kernel of the operating system
C. To correct security holes and weaknesses
D. To explore new hardware features

Answer: C
Explanation:
Keeping firmware up to date is necessary to patch security vulnerabilities and weaknesses that could be exploited by threat actors. Vendors release firmware updates to correct security flaws, enhance stability, and ensure compatibility with updated security protocols.

QUESTION 2
How do threat actors launch ransomware attacks on organizations?

A. They implant malware to collect data from the corporation’s financial system.
B. They deface an organization’s public-facing website.
C. They lock data and deny access to the data until they receive money.
D. They secretly spy on employees and collect employees’ personal information.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that denies access to data by encrypting it and demands payment from the victim to restore access. Threat actors may deliver ransomware through phishing emails, malicious downloads, or exploiting vulnerabilities in exposed systems.

QUESTION 3
You are planning to work from home. Your company requires that you connect to the company network through a VPN.
Which three critical functions do VPNs provide to remote workers? (Choose three.)

A. WAN management
B. Authorization of users
C. Integrity of data
D. Authentication of users
E. Confidentiality of information
F. Password management

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Question: 1
Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator authorizes two FortiAP devices connected to this wireless controller However, one FortiAP is not able to broadcast the SSIDs. What must the administrator do to fix the issue?

A. Enable the radios on the FAP23JF FortiAP profile.
B. Replace the FortiAP device model to match the other device
C. Disable the override setting on the FortiAP that is preventing it from broadcasting SSIDs
D. Assign the FAP231F FortiAP profile to the problematic FortiAP device

Answer: A

Question: 2
How can you find the upstream and downstream link rates of a wireless client connected to a FortiAP?

A. On the FortiGate GUI using the WiFi Client monitor
B. On the FortiAP CLI using the cw_diag ksta command
C. On the FortiGate CL! using the diagnose wireless-controller wlac -d sta command
D. On the FortiAP CLI using the cw_diag -d sea command

Answer: B

Question: 3
Which two threats on wireless networks are detected by WIDS? (Choose two.)

A. Brute-force dictionary attacks
B. Unauthorized wireless connection
C. Rogue access points
D. WPA2 authentication vulnerabilities

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Question: 1
You have subscribed to GitHub Premium Support, and you need to submit a support ticket. GitHub Premium Support can help you with:

A. writing scripts.
B. installing GitHub Enterprise Server.
C. setting up hardware.
D. integrating with third-party applications.

Answer: B
Explanation:
GitHub Premium Support includes assistance with installing and using GitHub Enterprise Server, ensuring your deployment is configured correctly and any installation issues are resolved.

Question: 2
You need to contact GitHub Premium Support. What are valid reasons for submitting a support ticket? (Each answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A. license renewal
B. hardware setup issues or errors
C. business impact from security issues within your organization
D. outages on GitHub.com affecting core Git functionality

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Question: 1
You want to let multiple administrators work in the same ADOM without creating configuration conflicts.
What is the best and the most effective solution to apply?

A. Configure RADIUS authentication to assign ADOM roles to each user.
B. Enable workflow mode, which is the only way to prevent concurrent configuration conflicts.
C. Assign administrators with JSON API access to the FortiManager.
D. Activate workspace mode in the ADOM settings.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Activating workspace mode in the ADOM settings allows multiple administrators to work concurrently in the same ADOM by isolating their configuration changes in separate workspaces, preventing conflicts and enabling effective collaboration.

Question: 2
Refer to the exhibit.

If the monitored interface for the primary FortiManager device fails, what must you do to maintain high availability (HA)?

A. The FortiManager HA failover is transparent to administrators and does not require any additional action.
B. Manually promote one of the working secondary devices to the primary role: and reboot the original primary device to remove the peer IP address of the failed device.
C. Reconfigure the primary device to remove the peer IP address of the failed device from its configuration.
D. Check the integrity database of the primary device to force a secondary device to become the new primary with all active interfaces.

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QUESTION 161
During installation of Backup & Replication on a Windows 2008 R2 server with eight CPUs and 16GB of RAM, an error occurs. What could be the cause of this?

A. The Windows firewall is enabled and required ports are not open.
B. Memory is too low.
C. Windows 2008 R2 is not a supported version.
D. There are not enough CPU resources.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Veeam Backup & Replication v12 requires Windows Server 2012 or later as its installation platform. Attempting to install on Windows 2008 R2 will fail because that OS is no longer supported by Veeam.

QUESTION 162
A customer has a large VMware vSphere virtual machine with a custom operating system with intense I/O. The customer claims the backup process is causing the virtual machine to stun, despite a very performant production environment and Veeam proxies as powerful physical machines.
What is the correct solution to deploy?

A. Deploy a high performance Veeam repository to decrease the backup time.
B. Use Continuous Data Protection replication to decrease RPO and process I/O operations as soon as they are performed.
C. Use Backup from Storage Snapshots to decrease the VMware vSphere snapshot commit time.
D. Deploy a Veeam Agent to leverage volume-level backup and avoid using proxy servers.

Answer: C
Explanation:
By offloading snapshot creation and commit to the storage array, Veeam drastically shortens the VMware snapshot commit phase and eliminates prolonged VM stun during high-I/O backups.

QUESTION 163
Executive management would like a list of all virtual machines that are not protected by Veeam Backup & Replication. Which component can provide this information?

A. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager
B. Veeam Service Provider Console
C. Veeam Backup & Replication Console
D. Veeam ONE

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Question: 1
Given: John Smith uses a coffee shop’s Internet hot-spot (no authentication or encryption) to transfer funds between his checking and savings accounts at his bank’s website. The bank’s website uses the HTTPS protocol to protect sensitive account information. While John was using the hot-spot, a hacker was able to obtain John’s bank account user ID and password and exploit this information.
What likely scenario could have allowed the hacker to obtain John’s bank account user ID and password?

A. John’s bank is using an expired X.509 certificate on their web server. The certificate is on John’s Certificate Revocation List (CRL), causing the user ID and password to be sent unencrypted.
B. John uses the same username and password for banking that he does for email. John used a POP3 email client at the wireless hot-spot to check his email, and the user ID and password were not encrypted.
C. John accessed his corporate network with his IPSec VPN software at the wireless hot-spot. An IPSec VPN only encrypts data, so the user ID and password were sent in clear text. John uses the same username and password for banking that he does for his IPSec VPN software.
D. The bank’s web server is using an X.509 certificate that is not signed by a root CA, causing the user ID and password to be sent unencrypted.
E. Before connecting to the bank’s website, John’s association to the AP was hijacked. The attacker intercepted the HTTPS public encryption key from the bank’s web server and has decrypted John’s login credentials in near real-time.

Answer: B

Question: 2
What type of WLAN attack is prevented with the use of a per-MPDU TKIP sequence counter (TSC)?

A. Weak-IV
B. Forgery
C. Replay
D. Bit-flipping
E. Session hijacking

Answer: C

Question: 3
What 802.11 WLAN security problem is directly addressed by mutual authentication?

A. Wireless hijacking attacks
B. Weak password policies
C. MAC spoofing
D. Disassociation attacks
E. Offline dictionary attacks
F. Weak Initialization Vectors

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QUESTION 162
A company is using a pre-trained large language model (LLM) to extract information from documents. The company noticed that a newer LLM from a different provider is available on Amazon Bedrock. The company wants to transition to the new LLM on Amazon Bedrock.
What does the company need to do to transition to the new LLM?

A. Create a new labeled dataset
B. Perform feature engineering.
C. Adjust the prompt template.
D. Fine-tune the LLM.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Transitioning to a new large language model (LLM) on Amazon Bedrock typically involves mini mal changes when the new model is pre-trained and available as a foundation model. Since the company is moving from one pre-trained LLM to another, the primary task is to ensure compatibility between the new model’s input requirements and the existing application. Adjusting the prompt template is often necessary because different LLMs may have varying prompt formats, tokenization methods, or response behaviors, even for similar tasks like document extraction.
When switching between foundation models in Amazon Bedrock, you may need to adjust the prompt template to align with the new model’s expected input format and optimize its performance for your use case. Prompt engineering is critical to ensure the model understands the task and generates accurate outputs.

QUESTION 163
A customer service team is developing an application to analyze customer feedback and automatically classify the feedback into different categories. The categories include product quality, customer service, and delivery experience.
Which AI concept does this scenario present?

A. Computer vision
B. Natural language processing (NLP)
C. Recommendation systems
D. Fraud detection

Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario involves analyzing customer feedback and automatically classifying it into categories such as product quality, customer service, and delivery experience. This task requires processing and understanding textual data, which is a core application of natural language processing (NLP). NLP encompasses techniques for analyzing, interpreting, and generating human language, including tasks like text classification, sentiment analysis, and topic modeling, all of which are relevant to this use case.
Natural Language Processing (NLP) enables machines to understand and process human language. Common NLP tasks include text classification, sentiment analysis, named entity recognition, and topic modeling. Services like Amazon Comprehend can be used to classify text into predefined categories based on content.

QUESTION 164
A company wants to fine-tune an ML model that is hosted on Amazon Bedrock. The company wants to use its own sensitive data that is stored in private databases in a VPC. The data needs to stay within the company’s private network.
Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Restrict access to Amazon Bedrock by using an AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) service role.
B. Restrict access to Amazon Bedrock by using an AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) resource policy.
C. Use AWS PrivateLink to connect the VPC and Amazon Bedrock.
D. Use AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) keys to encrypt the data.

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QUESTION 382
You have a Hyper-V generation 2 virtual machine image that was prepared by running sysprep.exe.
You plan to use the image as part of an SAP application server deployment on Azure.
You need to ensure that you can deploy the image as an Azure virtual machine.
What should you do first?

A. Convert the virtual disk to a dynamically expanding disk.
B. Use Azure Storage Explorer to upload the VHDX file to a storage account.
C. Convert the VHDX disk image to a VHD disk image.
D. Run azcopy to upload the VHDX file to a managed disk.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Before you upload a Windows virtual machine (VM) from on-premises to Azure, you must prepare the virtual hard disk (VHD or VHDX). Azure supports both generation 1 and generation 2 VMs that are in VHD file format and that have a fixed-size disk. The maximum size allowed for the OS VHD on a generation 1 VM is 2 TB.
You can convert a VHDX file to VHD, convert a dynamically expanding disk to a fixed-size disk, but you can’t change a VM’s generation.

QUESTION 383
You have an Azure subscription.
You plan to deploy an SAP landscape that will store /sapmnt on an NFS Azure file share.
You need to recommend a backup solution for /sapmnt. The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Provide recoverability if the file share is deleted.
– Minimize administrative effort.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A. AzCopy
B. Azure Backup
C. fpsync
D. snapshots

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QUESTION 107
What is a symptom of an issue with vSphere HA?

A. Snapshots cannot be created or consolidated.
B. VMs are not restarted after a host failure.
C. VMs are not being migrated using vMotion.
D. Hosts frequently disconnect from vCenter Server.

Answer: B

QUESTION 108
Which feature of VMware Data Services Manager enhances security and compliance?

A. Automated workload migration
B. Network traffic encryption
C. Storage replication
D. Database level authentication

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